UPSC Civil Services Prelims — 2022
57 questions
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. 2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. 3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following freedom fighters: 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States. 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditures. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditures. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the statements are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. 2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below:
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Court to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
Consider the following statements: 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following States: 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
Consider the following pairs: Peak — Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs — States 1. Ghataprabha — Telangana 2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh 3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh 4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: 1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. distinguish among species that look alike. 3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in food we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements: 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. 2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo Mail are form of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct?
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?
Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?
Consider the following statements: 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for living organisms. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in the media?
Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean should not exceed 5 µg/m3. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the period of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide. Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake – Location 1. Hokera Wetland – Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake – Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu. How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
“If rainforests and tropical forests are lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements?
With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the following is not a bird?